E-Creativity
25-03-03, 02:41 PM
Are women in Islam supposed to breastfeed their babies for 2 years if they are able-bodied to do do?
Can she ask for money for doing this ?
in case she was divoced, could she ask her divorcee for money for breastfeeding their baby?
thnaks :)
In The name of Allah the most beneficent the most merciful.
Assalamu Alikum
Are women in Islam supposed to breastfeed their babies for 2 years if they are able-bodied to do do?
Yes the Mother is suppose to breast feed her baby for 2 whole years but if she couldnt then she dont have to but it's preferable.
Can she ask for money for doing this ?
Yes she can earn money for that if she was breast feeding other babies than hers. Its as people used to do in the old days.
in case she was divoced, could she ask her divorcee for money for breastfeeding their baby?
Indeed the father of the child is responsible to financially support all what the mother and the child needs even if they were divorced.
And Allah knows best.
The verse from El-Baqharah (2:233) clearify all what you asked about:
http://www.unn.ac.uk/societies/islamic/quran/arabic/2_233.gif
The mothers shall give suck to their children for two whole years, (that is) for those (parents) who desire to complete the term of suckling, but the father of the child shall bear the cost of the mother's food and clothing on a reasonable basis. No person shall have a burden laid on him greater than he can bear. No mother shall be treated unfairly on account of her child, nor father on account of his child. And on the (father's) heir is incumbent the like of that (which was incumbent on the father). If they both decide on weaning, by mutual consent, and after due consultation, there is no sin on them. And if you decide on a foster suckling-mother for your children, there is no sin on you, provided you pay (the mother) what you agreed (to give her) on reasonable basis. And fear Allâh and know that Allâh is All-Seer of what you do.
Shahrazad
26-03-03, 02:14 AM
I've got another inquiry, I always thought that a mother isn't permitted to breastfeed after the baby has completed 2 years of age.
1.How far is this true?
2.Is breast-feeding after 2 years doesn't make a child a (mahram)?
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Arabian Princess
26-03-03, 08:31 AM
ST
I always thought the same .. but I knew recently that its not Haram but the liquied that comes out from the mother is not milk. The milk stops after 2 years.
I never heard of your second question and I dont think it is true.
I have never heard any of the above >>>> breastfeeding to earn money.... wow! I am d-a-m-n surprised!! If true how does it differ from 'prostitution' ... i.e. using ur body for money?
Shahrazad
26-03-03, 05:42 PM
Originally posted by Seham
I have never heard any of the above >>>> breastfeeding to earn money.... wow! I am d-a-m-n surprised!! If true how does it differ from 'prostitution' ... i.e. using ur body for money?
Seham, I don't see any similarities between prostitution and breastfeeding for money! One is fulfilling other's desires and the other is feeding a child whom his mom for a reason or another can't.
The main concern I would think of is that it might cause side-effects in the society such as intermixing of pedigrees.
Wallahu A3laam..
naturally
26-03-03, 05:59 PM
A very simple rule in Islam is that only milk that 'build the bones' makes that child a mahram. Milk will build the bones only if had before completing 2 years. You have to give the child 5 full (until the baby is full) sessions, in 5 difference occasions.
E-Creativity
28-03-03, 02:54 PM
http://quran.al-islam.com/GenGifImages/Normal/442X500-0/65/6/1.png
{{[6] Let the women live (in 'iddat,) in the same style as ye live, according to your means: annoy them not, so as to restrict them. And if they carry (life in their wombs), then spend (your substance) on them until they deliver their burden: and if they suckle your (offspring), give them their recompense: and take mutual counsel together, according to what is just and reasonable. And if ye find yourselves in difficulties, let another woman suckle (the child) on the (father's) behalf. }}
Surat Altalaq-6
"give them their recompense"
doesn't that mean that the mother herself can ask the her husband for compensation if she wishes to?
Thanks :)